PASS GUARANTEED 2025 PEOPLECERT ITIL-4-PRACTITIONER-RELEASE-MANAGEMENT: ITIL 4 PRACTITIONER: RELEASE MANAGEMENT EXAM FIRST-GRADE NEW BRAINDUMPS EBOOK

Pass Guaranteed 2025 Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management: ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam First-grade New Braindumps Ebook

Pass Guaranteed 2025 Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management: ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam First-grade New Braindumps Ebook

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q16-Q21):

NEW QUESTION # 16
A service provider is reviewing its release management practice. It has been found that most releases meet their objectives and are delivered on time. However, teams and organizations using the service provider's services are complaining that sometimes software updates interrupt their work during peak business hours.
What should the service provider do to improve the release management practice by applying the 'collaborate and promote visibility' guiding principle?

  • A. Review the effectiveness of release models
  • B. Ensure an excellent user experience
  • C. Do not overcomplicate the practice
  • D. Optimize the practice for the value streams

Answer: B

Explanation:
The 'collaborate and promote visibility' guiding principle in ITIL 4 emphasizes working with stakeholders to ensure transparency and alignment with their needs. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document advises:"Applying the 'collaborate and promote visibility' principle involves working closely with stakeholders, such as service consumers, to understand their needs and ensure releases do not disrupt their operations, thereby ensuring an excellent user experience"(Section 5.1).
* The issue is that updates interrupt work during peak hours, indicating a lack of collaboration with users to understand their schedules and needs.
* Option A (Ensure an excellent user experience) directly addresses this by implying collaboration with users to schedule releases at non-disruptive times, aligning with the principle.
* Option B (Review the effectiveness of release models) is an internal activity and doesn't directly involve collaboration with stakeholders.
* Option C (Optimize the practice for the value streams) focuses on value stream efficiency but doesn't specifically address user collaboration.
* Option D (Do not overcomplicate the practice) is unrelated to the collaboration principle.
The correct answer is A, as ensuring an excellent user experience through collaboration directly applies the principle to address the issue.


NEW QUESTION # 17
A service owner is initiating the release planning and coordination process for a complex project. What is an example of the FIRST activity that the service owner should undertake in this instance?

  • A. Select a release model that fits with the types of changes to be included in the release
  • B. Check that an automated notification has been sent to stakeholders
  • C. Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate for the particular release under consideration
  • D. Test the service components and take remedial action as necessary

Answer: A

Explanation:
The release planning and coordination process begins with defining the approach for the release. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"The first step in release planning and coordination is to select an appropriate release model that fits the types of changes to be included in the release. This ensures that the release approach aligns with the nature and complexity of the changes"(Section 3.2.1).
* Option A (Test the service components) is part of the release execution or testing phase, not the first step in planning.
* Option B (Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate) is a subsequent step after selecting the model, to confirm procedural alignment.
* Option C (Select a release model) is the first activity, as it sets the foundation for how the release will be structured and managed, especially for a complex project.
* Option D (Check that an automated notification has been sent) occurs later, during the communication phase of the release process.
The correct answer is C, as selecting the release model is the initial step in release planning.


NEW QUESTION # 18
An organization invested in the development and adoption of a common approach to release management.
Which metric will help the organization to understand if this initiative has been successful?

  • A. The number of releases that were implemented after the target implementation date
  • B. Alignment of release management procedures between the organization and its suppliers
  • C. The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents
  • D. The satisfaction rating given by service consumers of individual releases

Answer: C

Explanation:
A common approach to release management aims to improve the reliability and stability of releases. The ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument highlights key metrics for evaluating the success of release management:"Key metrics for release management often include the percentage of releases that do not result in incidents, as this indicates the stability and reliability of the release process"(Section 5.3).
* Option A (Alignment with suppliers) is a process improvement metric but doesn't directly measure the success of the release outcomes.
* Option B (The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents) directly measures the effectiveness of the release process by assessing its impact on service stability, aligning with the goal of a common approach to reduce errors and disruptions.
* Option C (Satisfaction rating) is a valuable metric but is more subjective and less directly tied to the operational success of a common approach.
* Option D (Number of delayed releases) measures timeliness but not the quality or stability of the releases.
The best metric to assess the success of a standardized release management approach is the reduction in incidents, making B the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 19
An organization manually checks that releases of new or changed products/services have been successfully completed. Which tools should be used to automate this process?

  • A. Monitoring and event management tools
  • B. Enterprise architecture tools
  • C. Analysis and reporting tools
  • D. Workflow management and collaboration tools

Answer: A

Explanation:
Automating the verification of release success involves tracking the performance and stability of the released services. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument notes:"Monitoring and event management tools can automate the verification of release success by tracking system performance and detecting anomalies post-release, ensuring the release meets its objectives"(Section 4.2).
* Option A (Monitoring and event management tools) is correct, as these tools can automatically check system health and performance after a release, replacing manual checks.
* Option B (Workflow management and collaboration tools) focuses on process coordination, not post- release verification.
* Option C (Enterprise architecture tools) is used for dependency mapping, not release verification.
* Option D (Analysis and reporting tools) provides retrospective insights but doesn't automate real-time verification.
The correct answer is A, as monitoring tools are best suited for automating release verification.


NEW QUESTION # 20
An organization has a dedicated release management team that is effective in managing releases, but this team has very poor coordination with the change enablement team. What capability level of release management does this indicate?

  • A. Level 1
  • B. Level 4
  • C. Level 3
  • D. Level 2

Answer: D

Explanation:
The ITIL capability model evaluates not only the effectiveness of a practice but also its integrationwith other practices. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is effective in its own scope but may lack integration with other practices. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and effective coordination with related practices like change enablement" (Section 5.2).
* The scenario shows that the release management team is effective (meeting Level 2), but poor coordination with the change enablement team indicates a lack of integration.
* Level 1 (Ad-hoc) would mean no consistent process, which isn't the case here since the team is effective.
* Level 3 requires integration and standardization across practices, which is not met due to poor coordination.
* Level 4 is even more advanced, requiring quantitative management, which isn't applicable.
The capability level is B (Level 2), as the practice is effective but lacks the integration needed for Level
3.


NEW QUESTION # 21
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